James Burke
]]>Thanks for your contribution here, very interesting! (I’ve put it as a blog entry already)
I agree that the premodernity/modernity/postmodernity is a simplication, but I disagree about your assessment of the term.
Postmodernity refers to the objective situation after 1968 or 1973 or whatever other cut-off date that people identify as the symbolic break with the Fordist social order; while postmodernism refers to the theories that reflect or created these changes. There is a lot of disagreement, it is mostly academic, but no one that studies, which in today’s west is the majority can ignore it as it is very much integrated in any curriculum and is widespread as a cultural phenomenom.. But analysts use a variety of similar terms (liquid modernity), even when they dispute it. If you think that postmodernity does not cover well the characteristics of this era, you’d still need a concept to refer to it.
An important question is, whether we still broadly in that era, or whether something is now changing again, in other words, should we or not, make a break between the ‘postmodern era’, and today’s emergence of peer to peer. I think we should, and that is the point of the debate. I think that the advent of the full internet, and the techno-social changes that it enables, has such an impact that we are again in a ‘structural transformation’. From reading your comments, I would conclude that you agree.
Michel Bauwens
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